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May 22nd, 2026
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But, wouldn't the Idealist view say practically the same thing as it relates to most (or many) prophecies being fulfilled before 70 AD. I'm still trying to find out why the Partial Preterist must be different from the Idealist interpretation. Is it just base on John writing Revelation in the late 60s AD instead of early 90s AD? I ran across this article that helps some, but I'm not sure if the author is too bias and is somewhat flawed in his description of the Idealist interpretation. https://www.ligonier.org/learn/arti...b6-usQa1Sxfi5o2uB_OeTyLmm_3ifXW3NGb7hwGE
John Chaney
"having been firmly rooted and now being built up in Him and established in your faith . . ." Colossians 2:7
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