This is addressed to anyone on the Highway.

Hi

I want to ask a few questions regarding Israel and theocracy.

Would I be correct to say that when Israel got its first king, they ceased being a theocracy?

When Israel was under human government (monarchy), were they theonomic in its approach to civil justice and lawmaking (murderers get death penalty, etc.) even if the nation was no longer a theocracy?

If the answer to these two questions is yes, then it would seem to me that it is not necessary for someone who believes in “Theonomy” to also believe that it only works in a “theocracy”.

The reason I bring up this last point is that I have often read people opposed to “Theonomy” use the argument that Theonomy only works in a theocracy. Hence this would be a straw man argument.

Tom